1.What is considered the opposite of OLTP processing?
Answer:
data warehousing
2. Why might it be necessary to immediately flush out the audit records from memory to disk?
Answer:
To capture activities that are still memory resident that may have a negative impact on the database
3.Which administrative privileges have been added to Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM
4.Which utility replaced CSSAN and CSALTER in Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
The Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)
5.Which Oracle feature would help determine where a single currently executing SQL statement is in its execution plan, and where the statement
is spending its time?
Answer:
Real-Time SQL Monitoring
6.Which clause of the CREATE DATABASE statement will create a CDB?
Answer:
ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE
7.What package would you use to manually purge the audit records?
Answer:
DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.CLAN_AUDIT_TRAIL (AUDIT_TRAIL_TYPE=> DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.AUDIT_TRAIL_UNIFIED)
8.What is the minimum number of PDBs that can exist in a CDB?
Answer:
zero
9.
Question:
Which parameter of the impdp TRANSFORM parameter instructs Oracle Data Pump to create all LOBs as SecureFiles LOBs?
Answer:
TRANSFORM=LOB_STORAGE:SECUREFILE
10.Which initialization parameter enables the instance to dynamically distribute memory between the PGA and the SGA?
Answer:
MEMORY_TARGET
11.Which command allows you to set the default tablespace in a pluggable database?
Answer:
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE DEFAULT TABLESPACE <tablespace>;
12.Question:
How does a multitenant environment affect data redaction policies?
Answer:
You cannot create a data redaction policy that applies to an entire CDB
13.Question:
What are the two methods of RMAN active database duplication?
Answer:
push-based and pull-based
14.Question:
What script would you run after creating a database to recompile any potentially invalid PL/SQL modules?
Answer:
utlrp.sql
15.Which RMAN command is used to apply redo to a previously restored copy of a data file?
Answer:
The RECOVER command
16.What script must you execute after changing the initialization parameter to support extended data types?
Answer:
rdbms/admin/utl32k.sql (as SYSDBA)
17.What are three purposes of the RMAN FROM SERVICE clause in a Data Guard environment?
Answer:
to support file recovery over the network
to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database
to support file restoration over the network
18.If you successfully connect to a CDB using AS SYSDBA and issue the command SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL, what happens in the CDB?
Answer:
It shuts down as soon as all pending transactions are either committed or rolled back. New connections also are not permitted.
19.Which types of files exist in a CDB?
Answer:
One control file, one online redo log, one or more temp files, zero or more data files, one set of undo data files, and a set of system data files for every container (CDB=six files df, sf, cf, tmf, udf, rdf)
20.Which three password verification functions are provided by Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
verify_function_11G
ora12c_verify_function
ora12c_strong_verify_function
21.What action must you perform after executing the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure?
Answer:
Restart the database so that the changes will take effect
22.What clause of the ALTER SESSION statement determines whether the value of ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE can be displayed?
Answer:
ALTER SESSION SET ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY = {ALL,ACTIVE};
23.Which Oracle feature is enabled when you set SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value?
Answer:
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)
24.Which Oracle feature is enabled when you set SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value?
Answer:
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)
25.What clause is added to the CREATE TABLE command to enable in-database archiving at the row level?
Answer:
ROW ARCHIVAL
26.In order to redefine the default location of the audit trail, what procedure/package should you use?
Answer:
DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.SET_AUDIT_TRAIL_LOCATION
27.Which function allows you to view real-time database operation monitoring information after it has been enabled?
Answer:
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR
28.Question:
What is the name of the function that allows you to determine the write time Oracle requires to complete an I/O operation?
Answer:
HEAT_MAP
29.When performing a hot backup, what two commands surround the operating system copy commands if you want to back up all of the tablespaces at once?
Answer:
ALTER DATABASE BEGIN BACKUP; and ALTER DATABASE END BACKUP;
What value of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column indicates that a row is in a non-active state?
Answer:1
30.
If you consolidate multiple non-CDB databases into a single multitenant container database, do you require a temporary tablespace common to all containers?
Answer:
Yes
31.Which tablespace is common to all active tablespaces in the CDB?
Answer:
the UNDO tablespace
32.Question:
What is the term for the time frame over which a record or condition is "in force" or effective, versus the date the record or condition was entered into the database?
Answer:
temporal validity
33.When you grant a common role to the local user, what is the scope of the granted privileges?
Answer:
Only in the local user's PDB
34.What privilege is required to create a redaction policy?
Answer:
the EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_REDACT PL/SQL package
35.Which SGA components are manually sized when Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled?
Answer:
Nonstandard block size buffer caches
The keep buffer cache
The recycle buffer cache
The log buffer
36.What is the maximum number of PDBs that can exist in a CDB?
Answer:
253, including the seed
37. What new functionality for reference-partitioned tables is provided with the EXCHANGE operation in Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
cascading functionality
38.
Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to open a database?
Answer:
None. You cannot start up or shut down a database instance using EM Express.
39.Which function would you execute first when creating a PDB from an existing Oracle 12c non-CDB database?
Answer:
DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE
40.
Which clause of the GRANT statement will create a common role or privilege?
Answer:
CONTAINER = ALL
41.
Which types of index cannot be partitioned?
Answer:
You cannot partition a cluster index, an index defined on a clustered table, or a bitmap index on a nonpartitioned table.
42.Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to manage multiple databases running on the same host?
Answer:
None. You cannot perform this operation.
43.Who is the schema owner of the unified audit trail?
Answer:
AUDSYS
44.When using password file authentication, for what purpose is the password file used?
Answer:
To store the user name and passwords of users having the SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges
45.Question:
Which user(s) is automatically exempt from data redaction?
Answer:
SYS and SYSTEM
46.From which container(s) can you issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN command?
Answer:
root
47.
Which clause of the ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION statement will cause the global index to be truncated when the partition is truncated?
Answer:
UPDATE INDEXES
48.
Which three tablespaces are created by default when you create a PDB from a seed?
Answer:
TEMP, SYSAUX, and SYSTEM
49.
What parameter in the init.ora file generates an audit trail as an XML file?
Answer:
AUDIT_TRAIL=XML
50.What is considered the opposite of OLTP processing?
Answer:
data warehousing
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