1.What is considered the opposite of OLTP processing?
Answer:
data warehousing
2. Why might it be necessary to immediately flush out the audit records from memory to disk?
Answer:
To capture activities that are still memory resident that may have a negative impact on the database
3.Which administrative privileges have been added to Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM
4.Which utility replaced CSSAN and CSALTER in Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
The Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)
5.Which Oracle feature would help determine where a single currently executing SQL statement is in its execution plan, and where the statement
is spending its time?
Answer:
Real-Time SQL Monitoring
6.Which clause of the CREATE DATABASE statement will create a CDB?
Answer:
ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE
7.What package would you use to manually purge the audit records?
Answer:
DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.CLAN_AUDIT_TRAIL (AUDIT_TRAIL_TYPE=> DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.AUDIT_TRAIL_UNIFIED)
8.What is the minimum number of PDBs that can exist in a CDB?
Answer:
zero
9.
Question:
Which parameter of the impdp TRANSFORM parameter instructs Oracle Data Pump to create all LOBs as SecureFiles LOBs?
Answer:
TRANSFORM=LOB_STORAGE:SECUREFILE
10.Which initialization parameter enables the instance to dynamically distribute memory between the PGA and the SGA?
Answer:
MEMORY_TARGET
11.Which command allows you to set the default tablespace in a pluggable database?
Answer:
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE DEFAULT TABLESPACE <tablespace>;
12.Question:
How does a multitenant environment affect data redaction policies?
Answer:
You cannot create a data redaction policy that applies to an entire CDB
13.Question:
What are the two methods of RMAN active database duplication?
Answer:
push-based and pull-based
14.Question:
What script would you run after creating a database to recompile any potentially invalid PL/SQL modules?
Answer:
utlrp.sql
15.Which RMAN command is used to apply redo to a previously restored copy of a data file?
Answer:
The RECOVER command
16.What script must you execute after changing the initialization parameter to support extended data types?
Answer:
rdbms/admin/utl32k.sql (as SYSDBA)
17.What are three purposes of the RMAN FROM SERVICE clause in a Data Guard environment?
Answer:
to support file recovery over the network
to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database
to support file restoration over the network
18.If you successfully connect to a CDB using AS SYSDBA and issue the command SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL, what happens in the CDB?
Answer:
It shuts down as soon as all pending transactions are either committed or rolled back. New connections also are not permitted.
19.Which types of files exist in a CDB?
Answer:
One control file, one online redo log, one or more temp files, zero or more data files, one set of undo data files, and a set of system data files for every container (CDB=six files df, sf, cf, tmf, udf, rdf)
20.Which three password verification functions are provided by Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
verify_function_11G
ora12c_verify_function
ora12c_strong_verify_function
21.What action must you perform after executing the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure?
Answer:
Restart the database so that the changes will take effect
22.What clause of the ALTER SESSION statement determines whether the value of ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE can be displayed?
Answer:
ALTER SESSION SET ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY = {ALL,ACTIVE};
23.Which Oracle feature is enabled when you set SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value?
Answer:
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)
24.Which Oracle feature is enabled when you set SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value?
Answer:
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)
25.What clause is added to the CREATE TABLE command to enable in-database archiving at the row level?
Answer:
ROW ARCHIVAL
26.In order to redefine the default location of the audit trail, what procedure/package should you use?
Answer:
DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.SET_AUDIT_TRAIL_LOCATION
27.Which function allows you to view real-time database operation monitoring information after it has been enabled?
Answer:
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR
28.Question:
What is the name of the function that allows you to determine the write time Oracle requires to complete an I/O operation?
Answer:
HEAT_MAP
29.When performing a hot backup, what two commands surround the operating system copy commands if you want to back up all of the tablespaces at once?
Answer:
ALTER DATABASE BEGIN BACKUP; and ALTER DATABASE END BACKUP;
What value of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column indicates that a row is in a non-active state?
Answer:1
30.
If you consolidate multiple non-CDB databases into a single multitenant container database, do you require a temporary tablespace common to all containers?
Answer:
Yes
31.Which tablespace is common to all active tablespaces in the CDB?
Answer:
the UNDO tablespace
32.Question:
What is the term for the time frame over which a record or condition is "in force" or effective, versus the date the record or condition was entered into the database?
Answer:
temporal validity
33.When you grant a common role to the local user, what is the scope of the granted privileges?
Answer:
Only in the local user's PDB
34.What privilege is required to create a redaction policy?
Answer:
the EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_REDACT PL/SQL package
35.Which SGA components are manually sized when Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled?
Answer:
Nonstandard block size buffer caches
The keep buffer cache
The recycle buffer cache
The log buffer
36.What is the maximum number of PDBs that can exist in a CDB?
Answer:
253, including the seed
37. What new functionality for reference-partitioned tables is provided with the EXCHANGE operation in Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
cascading functionality
38.
Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to open a database?
Answer:
None. You cannot start up or shut down a database instance using EM Express.
39.Which function would you execute first when creating a PDB from an existing Oracle 12c non-CDB database?
Answer:
DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE
40.
Which clause of the GRANT statement will create a common role or privilege?
Answer:
CONTAINER = ALL
41.
Which types of index cannot be partitioned?
Answer:
You cannot partition a cluster index, an index defined on a clustered table, or a bitmap index on a nonpartitioned table.
42.Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to manage multiple databases running on the same host?
Answer:
None. You cannot perform this operation.
43.Who is the schema owner of the unified audit trail?
Answer:
AUDSYS
44.When using password file authentication, for what purpose is the password file used?
Answer:
To store the user name and passwords of users having the SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges
45.Question:
Which user(s) is automatically exempt from data redaction?
Answer:
SYS and SYSTEM
46.From which container(s) can you issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN command?
Answer:
root
47.
Which clause of the ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION statement will cause the global index to be truncated when the partition is truncated?
Answer:
UPDATE INDEXES
48.
Which three tablespaces are created by default when you create a PDB from a seed?
Answer:
TEMP, SYSAUX, and SYSTEM
49.
What parameter in the init.ora file generates an audit trail as an XML file?
Answer:
AUDIT_TRAIL=XML
50.What is considered the opposite of OLTP processing?
Answer:
data warehousing
Saturday, October 24, 2015
Thursday, October 22, 2015
25 flashcards questions
1.location audit= ,dbms_audit_mgmt_.set_audit_trail_location
2. Heat_map =determine io operation time
3. Hot backup at once two command = Answer:
ALTER DATABASE BEGIN BACKUP; and ALTER DATABASE END BACKUP;
4. What value of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column indicates that a row is in a non-active state?
Answer:1
5. If you consolidate multiple non-CDB databases into a single multitenant container database, do you require a temporary tablespace common to all containers?
Answer:Yes
6. Which tablespace is common to all active tablespaces in the CDB?
Answer:the UNDO tablespace
7. What is the term for the time frame over which a record or condition is "in force" or effective, versus the date the record or condition was entered into the database?
Answer:temporal validity
8. When you grant a common role to the local user, what is the scope of the granted privileges?
Answer:Only in the local user's PDB
9. When you grant a common role to the local user, what is the scope of the granted privileges?
Answer:
Only in the local user's PDB
10. uestion:
What privilege is required to create a redaction policy?
Answer:
the EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_REDACT PL/SQL package
11. Question:
Which SGA components are manually sized when Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled?
Answer: Nonstandard block size buffer caches
The keep buffer cache
The recycle buffer cache
The log buffer
12. What is the maximum number of PDBs that can exist in a CDB?
Answer:253, including the se
2. Heat_map =determine io operation time
3. Hot backup at once two command = Answer:
ALTER DATABASE BEGIN BACKUP; and ALTER DATABASE END BACKUP;
4. What value of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column indicates that a row is in a non-active state?
Answer:1
5. If you consolidate multiple non-CDB databases into a single multitenant container database, do you require a temporary tablespace common to all containers?
Answer:Yes
6. Which tablespace is common to all active tablespaces in the CDB?
Answer:the UNDO tablespace
7. What is the term for the time frame over which a record or condition is "in force" or effective, versus the date the record or condition was entered into the database?
Answer:temporal validity
8. When you grant a common role to the local user, what is the scope of the granted privileges?
Answer:Only in the local user's PDB
9. When you grant a common role to the local user, what is the scope of the granted privileges?
Answer:
Only in the local user's PDB
10. uestion:
What privilege is required to create a redaction policy?
Answer:
the EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_REDACT PL/SQL package
11. Question:
Which SGA components are manually sized when Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled?
Answer: Nonstandard block size buffer caches
The keep buffer cache
The recycle buffer cache
The log buffer
12. What is the maximum number of PDBs that can exist in a CDB?
Answer:253, including the se
13. Question:
What new functionality for reference-partitioned tables is provided with the EXCHANGE operation in Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
cascading functionality
14. Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to open a database?
Answer:None. You cannot start up or shut down a database instance using EM Express.
15. Which function would you execute first when creating a PDB from an existing Oracle 12c non-CDB database?
Answer:DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE
16. Which clause of the GRANT statement will create a common role or privilege?
Answer:CONTAINER = ALL
17. Which types of index cannot be partitioned?
Answer:You cannot partition a cluster index, an index defined on a clustered table, or a bitmap index on a nonpartitioned table.
18. Question:Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to manage multiple databases running on the same host?
Answer:
None. You cannot perform this operation.
19. Question:
Who is the schema owner of the unified audit trail?
Answer:AUDSYS
20. Question:
When using password file authentication, for what purpose is the password file used?
Answer:To store the user name and passwords of users having the SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges
21. Question:
Which user(s) is automatically exempt from data redaction?
Answer:SYS and SYSTEM
22. Question:
From which container(s) can you issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN command?
Answer:root
23. Question:Which clause of the ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION statement will cause the global index to be
What new functionality for reference-partitioned tables is provided with the EXCHANGE operation in Oracle Database 12c?
Answer:
cascading functionality
14. Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to open a database?
Answer:None. You cannot start up or shut down a database instance using EM Express.
15. Which function would you execute first when creating a PDB from an existing Oracle 12c non-CDB database?
Answer:DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE
16. Which clause of the GRANT statement will create a common role or privilege?
Answer:CONTAINER = ALL
17. Which types of index cannot be partitioned?
Answer:You cannot partition a cluster index, an index defined on a clustered table, or a bitmap index on a nonpartitioned table.
18. Question:Which option in Enterprise Manager Express allows you to manage multiple databases running on the same host?
Answer:
None. You cannot perform this operation.
19. Question:
Who is the schema owner of the unified audit trail?
Answer:AUDSYS
20. Question:
When using password file authentication, for what purpose is the password file used?
Answer:To store the user name and passwords of users having the SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges
21. Question:
Which user(s) is automatically exempt from data redaction?
Answer:SYS and SYSTEM
22. Question:
From which container(s) can you issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN command?
Answer:root
23. Question:Which clause of the ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION statement will cause the global index to be
23.Question:Which clause of the ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION statement will cause the global index to be truncated when the partition is truncated?
Answer:UPDATE INDEXES
24. Which three tablespaces are created by default when you create a PDB from a seed?
Answer:
TEMP, SYSAUX, and SYSTEM
25. What parameter in the init.ora file generates an audit trail as an XML file?
Answer:AUDIT_TRAIL=XML
26. Question:
What is considered the opposite of OLTP processing?
Answer:
data warehousing
Answer:UPDATE INDEXES
24. Which three tablespaces are created by default when you create a PDB from a seed?
Answer:
TEMP, SYSAUX, and SYSTEM
25. What parameter in the init.ora file generates an audit trail as an XML file?
Answer:AUDIT_TRAIL=XML
26. Question:
What is considered the opposite of OLTP processing?
Answer:
data warehousing
----
Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode. You have configured the control file autobackup and take regular RMAN backups of your database, but you do not use a recovery catalog.
All copies of the current control file are lost. No data files are damaged or lost.
Examine the RMAN commands:
1. STARTUP NOMOUNT;
2. STARTUP MOUNT;
3. RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM AUTOBACKUP;
4. ALTER DATABASE MOUNT;
5. RESTORE DATABASE;
6. RECOVER DATABASE;
7. ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
8. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
What is the correct sequence of required commands to recover the control file?
1,3,4,7
2,5,6,8
1,3,4,6,8
2,3,4,5,6,7
Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
RMAN> STARTUP NOMOUNT;
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM AUTOBACKUP;
RMAN> ALTER DATABASE MOUNT;
RMAN> RECOVER DATABASE
RMAN> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
The STARTUP NOMOUNT; command will simply start the instance.
The RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM AUTOBACKUP; command will restore the control file(s) from the autobackup that RMAN had been taking.
The ALTER DATABASE MOUNT; command will raise the instance from unmounted to mounted. This operation will be successful because the control files have been recreated and restored by the previous command.
Finally, the ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS; command will reset the log files such that from this point forward, the system change number (SCN) in the header blocks of all the data files will be reset to match the corresponding SCNs in the control files. When the online redo log files are reset, a
All copies of the current control file are lost. No data files are damaged or lost.
Examine the RMAN commands:
1. STARTUP NOMOUNT;
2. STARTUP MOUNT;
3. RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM AUTOBACKUP;
4. ALTER DATABASE MOUNT;
5. RESTORE DATABASE;
6. RECOVER DATABASE;
7. ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
8. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
What is the correct sequence of required commands to recover the control file?
1,3,4,7
2,5,6,8
1,3,4,6,8
2,3,4,5,6,7
Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
RMAN> STARTUP NOMOUNT;
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM AUTOBACKUP;
RMAN> ALTER DATABASE MOUNT;
RMAN> RECOVER DATABASE
RMAN> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
The STARTUP NOMOUNT; command will simply start the instance.
The RESTORE CONTROLFILE FROM AUTOBACKUP; command will restore the control file(s) from the autobackup that RMAN had been taking.
The ALTER DATABASE MOUNT; command will raise the instance from unmounted to mounted. This operation will be successful because the control files have been recreated and restored by the previous command.
Finally, the ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS; command will reset the log files such that from this point forward, the system change number (SCN) in the header blocks of all the data files will be reset to match the corresponding SCNs in the control files. When the online redo log files are reset, a
Tuesday, October 20, 2015
Elimnate Unuse privilege by certain users Oracle12c : Define the target objects to analyze
Step A: Define the target objects to analyze
There are three kinds of analysis that can be performed:
Database – analyze used privileges within the entire database (except for those being used by administrative users).
To run a database level analysis:
Database – analyze used privileges within the entire database (except for those being used by administrative users).
To run a database level analysis:
exec SYS.DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.CREATE_CAPTURE ( - name=>’All_Priv_Analysis’, - description=>’Captures everything’, - type => dbms_privilege_capture.g_database);Role – analyze the privileges used by any specified role.
exec SYS.DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.CREATE_CAPTURE ( - name=>’Role_Priv_Analysis’, - description=>’Captures for a role’, - type=> dbms_privilege_capture.g_role, - roles=> role_name_list(‘ROLE1’,’ROLE2’);Context Specific – analyze the privileges used through a specified module.
exec SYS.DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.CREATE_CAPTURE ( - name=>’Priv_GL_Analysis’, - description=>’Captures for GL App’, - type=>dbms_privilege_capture.g.context, - condition=> ‘SYS_CONTEXT - (‘ ‘USERENV’ ‘,’ ‘MODULE’ ‘)=’ ‘General Ledger’ ‘ ‘);
Step B: Start (and end) the capture
exec SYS.DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.ENABLE_CAPTURE ( - name =>’All_Priv_Analysis’;After a reasonable period of time:
exec SYS.DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.DISABLE_CAPTURE ( - name =>’All_Priv_Analysis’;
Step C: Generate the Analysis Report
exec SYS.DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.GENERATE_RESULT ( - name=>’All_Priv_Analysis’;
Step D: Review the Results
There are new dictionary views that can be used to examine the results.
- DBA_USED_SYSPRIVS shows which system privileges were used during the analysis period
- DBA_USED_OBJPRIVS shows which object privileges were used during the analysis period
- DBA_USED_OBJPRIVS_PATH shows how the privileges were granted – direct to the user or via a role
- DBA_UNUSED_PRIVS shows privileges that were granted to the users but not used during the analysis period
- DBA_PRIV_CAPTURES shows information about the various captures that have been created
exec DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE.DROP_CAPUTURE(‘All_Priv_Analysis’);
With these new features to help with Privilege
Monday, October 12, 2015
Chapter 18 Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
Chapter 18 Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
■
Review Questions
1. Which two PL/SQL packages are used by Oracle Data Pump?
A. UTL_DATAPUMP
B. DBMS_METADATA
C. DBMS_DATAPUMP
D. UTL_FILE
E. DBMS_SQL
2. Which of these options is not a benefit of Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. Data Pump supports fine-grained object selection using the EXCLUDE, INCLUDE, and
CONTENT options.
B. Data Pump has the ability to specify the target version of the database so that the
objects exported are compatible. This is useful in moving data from Oracle 12c to
Oracle 11g.
C. Data Pump has the ability to specify the maximum number of threads to
unload data.
D. The DBA can choose to perform the export using a direct path or external tables.
E. The Data Pump job can be monitored from another computer on the network.
3. The Data Pump job maintains a master control table with information about Data
Pump. Choose the right statement.
A. The master table is the heart of Data Pump operation and is maintained in the
SYS schema.
B. The master table contains one row for the operation that keeps track of the object
being worked so that the job can be restarted in the event of failure.
C. During the export, the master table is written to the dump-file set at the beginning
of export operation.
D. The Data Pump job runs in the schema of the job creator with that user’s rights
and privileges.
E. All of the above.
4. When using the expdp and impdp clients, the parameters LOGFILE, DUMPFILE, and SQLFILE
need a directory object where the files will be written to or read from. Choose the nonsup-
ported method for nonprivileged users.
A. Specify the DIRECTORY parameter.
B. Specify the filename parameters with directory:file_name.
C. Use the initialization parameter DATA_PUMP_DIR.
D. None of the above (all are supported).
Review Questions
1079
5. Which command-line parameter of expdp and impdp clients connects you to an exist-
ing job?
A. CONNECT_CLIENT
B. CONTINUE_CLIENT
C. APPEND
D. ATTACH
6. Which option unloads the data and metadata of the SCOTT user, except the tables that
begin with TEMP? The dump file also should have the DDL to create the user.
A. CONTENT=BOTH TABLES=(not like 'TEMP%')
B. SCHEMAS=SCOTT
SCHEMAS=SCOTT
EXCLUDE=TABLE:"LIKE 'TEMP%'"
C. INCLUDE=METADATA EXCLUDE=TABLES:"NOT LIKE 'TEMP%'" SCHEMAS=SCOTT
D. TABLES="NOT LIKE 'TEMP%'" SCHEMAS=SCOTT
7. Which parameter is not a valid one for using the impdp client?
A. REMAP_INDEX
B. REMAP_TABLE
C. REMAP_SCHEMA
D. REMAP_TABLESPACE
E. REMAP_DATAFILE
8. When do you use the FLASHBACK_TIME parameter in the impdp utility?
A. To load data from the dump file that was modified after a certain time.
B. To discard data from the dump file that was modified after a certain time.
C. When the NETWORK_LINK parameter is used.
D. FLASHBACK_TIME is valid only with expdp, not with impdp.
9. To perform a Data Pump import from a live database, which parameter needs to be set?
A. db_link
B. network_link
C. dumpfile
D. directory
10. When is it most appropriate to use an external table?
A. When you need to read binary files (PDF and photos) into Oracle Database
B. To query a large file without loading the data into the database
C. When the expdp and impdp utilities are not licensed for use
D. To load a large file into the database quickly1080
Chapter 18 Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
■
11. Choose the statement that is not true from the following about direct path load.
A. Direct path load cannot occur if active transactions against the table are
being loaded.
B. Triggers do not fire during direct path loads.
C. During direct path loads, foreign key constraints are disabled at the beginning of
the load and then re-enabled after the load.
D. Only primary key, unique, and NOT NULL constraints are enforced.
E. Direct path load allows other users to perform DML operations on the table while
the direct load operation is in progress.
12. Which two statements regarding the Grid Infrastructure are true?
A. It is mandatory to create a disk group during the GI install using the Install and
Configure Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server option.
B. You can only create one disk group during the GI install.
C. A disk group must have at least two disks.
D. After a GI install, ASMCA must be run to configure an ASM instance.
13. What is the smallest unit of storage in an ASM disk group?
A. Database block
B. OS block
C. Allocation unit
D. Smallest disk in the disk group
14. Which privilege is required to start and stop an ASM instance?
A. SYSDBA
B. SYSASM
C. SYSDBA or SYSASM
D. SYSDBA or ASMOPER
15. What Oracle Restart utility that is used to start and stop ASM instances also starts the
listener associated with the ASM?
A. crsca
B. asmca
C. asmcmd
D. srvctl
Review Questions
1081
16. How many fail groups are required to configure a disk group with NORMAL
redundancy?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Fail groups are not applicable for NORMAL redundancy.
17. Review the following statement, and choose the SQL statement that successfully drops
a disk from the disk group.
SQL> SELECT name, path
FROM
v$asm_disk
WHERE group_number = 1;
NAME
------------
FRADISK_000
FRADISK_001
PATH
------------------------
/dev/rd/sd10c1
/dev/rd/sd11c1
A. DROP DISK FRADISK_000
B. ALTER DISKGROUP DROP DISK FRADISK_000
C. ALTER DISKGROUP DROP DISK '/dev/rd/sd10c1'
D. ALTER DISKGROUP DROP DISK FRADISK_000, FRADISK_001
18. Which of the following statements can speed up the disk group rebalancing process?
(Choose two.)
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET ASM_POWER_LIMIT=0
B. ALTER SYSTEM SET ASM_POWER_LIMIT=100
C. ALTER DISKGROUP oradata REBALANCE POWER 100
D. ALTER DISKGROUP oradata ASM_POWER_LIMIT 100
19. Choose the option that can be used to start an ASM instance.
A. sqlplus
B. asmcmd
C. asmca
D. srvctl
E. All of the above1082
Chapter 18 Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
■
20. Which command registers an ASM instance in Oracle Restart?
A. srvctl add asm
B. srvctl config asm
C. srvctl register asm
D. srvctl start asm
------------------------------------------
Chapter 18: Using Grid Infrastructure
and Data Movement Tools
1. B, C. The DBMS_METADATA package provides the database object definitions to the export
worker processes in the order of their creation. The DBMS_DATAPUMP package has the API
for high-speed export and import for bulk data and metadata loading and unloading.
2. B, D. Oracle Data Pump is known to versions 10g and newer; Oracle9i does not sup-
port Data Pump. Although Data Pump can perform data access using the direct-path
Chapter 18: Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
1117
or external-table method, Data Pump makes the decision automatically; the DBA can-
not specify the data-access method. Data Pump also supports network mode to import
directly from the source database and can estimate the space requirements for the
dump file.
3. D. The master table is the heart of the Data Pump operation and is maintained in the
schema of the job creator. It bears the name of the job, contains one row for each object
and each operation, and keeps status. Using this information helps restart a failed job or
suspend and resume a job. The master table is written to the dump file as the last step of
the export and is loaded to the schema of the user as the first step of the import.
4. C. If a directory object is created with the name DATA_PUMP_DIR, the privileged users can
use this location as the default location for Data Pump files. Privileged users are users
with EXP_FULL_DATABASE or IMP_FULL_DATABASE roles. Using %U in the filename generates
multiple files for parallel unloads, with each parallel process writing to one file.
5. D. The ATTACH parameter lets you attach or connect to an existing Data Pump job and
places you in interactive mode. ATTACH without any parameters attaches to the currently
running job, if there is only one job from the user. Otherwise, you must specify the job
name when using the ATTACH parameter.
6. B. If the CONTENT parameter is not specified, both data and metadata will be unloaded.
The valid values for CONTENT are METADATA_ONLY, DATA_ONLY, and ALL. If SCOTT is per-
forming the export, SCHEMAS=SCOTT is optional.
7. A. REMAP_DATAFILE changes the name of the source data file to the target data filename
in all DDL statements where the source data file is referenced. REMAP_SCHEMA loads
all objects from the source schema into the destination schema. When using REMAP_
TABLESPACE, all objects selected for import with persistent data in the source tablespace
are remapped to be created in the destination tablespace. REMAP_TABLE changes the
name of the table. Because the dump file is in XML format, Data Pump can make these
transformations easily. REMAP_INDEX is an invalid parameter.
8. C. You can specify the FLASHBACK_TIME or FLASHBACK_SCN parameter only when per-
forming a network import where the source is a database.
9. B. The network_link parameter specifies a database link to the source database.
10. B. External tables can be used to read ASCII flat files without loading them into the
database. The external table must be created with the ORACLE_LOADER access driver.
11. E. While the direct path load is in progress, users cannot run any DML statements
against the table. Only queries are allowed.
12. A, B. If you do not want to create a disk group during the GI install, you must choose the
Software Only install option. Only one disk group can be created during the GI install.
Additional disk groups can be created after the installation using ASMCA or SQL*Plus.1118
Appendix A Answers to Review Questions
■
Although we recommend that you have more than one disk in each disk group, it is not
mandatory. GI install configures the ASM instance and uses the disk group created dur-
ing the install to save the parameter file and password file of ASM instance.
13. C. The smallest unit of storage in an ASM disk group is the allocation unit. Oracle
Database 12c permits sizes of 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, or 64MB. The allocation unit is
the size of the blocks allocated to a data file. The AU must be small enough to keep
hot spots from occurring and large enough for efficient sequential reads. 1MB is the
default, and 4MB AU is recommended for most databases.
14. B. You must be connected to the ASM instance with the SYSASM privilege to start and
stop the ASM instance.
15. D. Server control is used to start and stop all Oracle Restart components including
ASM, listener, and database.
16. C. A NORMAL redundancy disk group requires two fail groups, and a HIGH redun-
dancy disk group requires three fail groups.
17. B. Option A is an invalid statement. The disk path can be used only when adding a
disk; when dropping a disk the disk name must be provided. Option C is using a disk
path with the drop clause and is invalid. Option D is syntactically correct, but you can-
not drop all disks from a disk group. A disk group must have at least one disk.
18. B, C. The rebalance speed at an instance level is adjusted using the ASM_POWER_LIMIT
parameter. Rebalance power can be adjusted using the ALTER DISKGROUP statement as
well. The higher the power limit, the more quickly a rebalance operation can complete.
Higher power values consume more I/O resources, which could impact database per-
formance. Rebalancing takes longer with lower power values, but it consumes fewer
processing and I/O resources.
19. E. All of the tools listed in options A to D can be used to start an ASM instance. You have
to explicitly provide start commands in sqlplus, asmcmd, and srvctl, but if asmca finds
that the ASM instance is not started, it gets confirmation from you and starts the instance.
20. A. The Server Control utility (srvctl) is used to register a component during an Oracle
Restart. The add command is used to register a component. The config command
shows the configuration information. The start command starts the component after
it is registered. The register command is not valid.
■
Review Questions
1. Which two PL/SQL packages are used by Oracle Data Pump?
A. UTL_DATAPUMP
B. DBMS_METADATA
C. DBMS_DATAPUMP
D. UTL_FILE
E. DBMS_SQL
2. Which of these options is not a benefit of Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. Data Pump supports fine-grained object selection using the EXCLUDE, INCLUDE, and
CONTENT options.
B. Data Pump has the ability to specify the target version of the database so that the
objects exported are compatible. This is useful in moving data from Oracle 12c to
Oracle 11g.
C. Data Pump has the ability to specify the maximum number of threads to
unload data.
D. The DBA can choose to perform the export using a direct path or external tables.
E. The Data Pump job can be monitored from another computer on the network.
3. The Data Pump job maintains a master control table with information about Data
Pump. Choose the right statement.
A. The master table is the heart of Data Pump operation and is maintained in the
SYS schema.
B. The master table contains one row for the operation that keeps track of the object
being worked so that the job can be restarted in the event of failure.
C. During the export, the master table is written to the dump-file set at the beginning
of export operation.
D. The Data Pump job runs in the schema of the job creator with that user’s rights
and privileges.
E. All of the above.
4. When using the expdp and impdp clients, the parameters LOGFILE, DUMPFILE, and SQLFILE
need a directory object where the files will be written to or read from. Choose the nonsup-
ported method for nonprivileged users.
A. Specify the DIRECTORY parameter.
B. Specify the filename parameters with directory:file_name.
C. Use the initialization parameter DATA_PUMP_DIR.
D. None of the above (all are supported).
Review Questions
1079
5. Which command-line parameter of expdp and impdp clients connects you to an exist-
ing job?
A. CONNECT_CLIENT
B. CONTINUE_CLIENT
C. APPEND
D. ATTACH
6. Which option unloads the data and metadata of the SCOTT user, except the tables that
begin with TEMP? The dump file also should have the DDL to create the user.
A. CONTENT=BOTH TABLES=(not like 'TEMP%')
B. SCHEMAS=SCOTT
SCHEMAS=SCOTT
EXCLUDE=TABLE:"LIKE 'TEMP%'"
C. INCLUDE=METADATA EXCLUDE=TABLES:"NOT LIKE 'TEMP%'" SCHEMAS=SCOTT
D. TABLES="NOT LIKE 'TEMP%'" SCHEMAS=SCOTT
7. Which parameter is not a valid one for using the impdp client?
A. REMAP_INDEX
B. REMAP_TABLE
C. REMAP_SCHEMA
D. REMAP_TABLESPACE
E. REMAP_DATAFILE
8. When do you use the FLASHBACK_TIME parameter in the impdp utility?
A. To load data from the dump file that was modified after a certain time.
B. To discard data from the dump file that was modified after a certain time.
C. When the NETWORK_LINK parameter is used.
D. FLASHBACK_TIME is valid only with expdp, not with impdp.
9. To perform a Data Pump import from a live database, which parameter needs to be set?
A. db_link
B. network_link
C. dumpfile
D. directory
10. When is it most appropriate to use an external table?
A. When you need to read binary files (PDF and photos) into Oracle Database
B. To query a large file without loading the data into the database
C. When the expdp and impdp utilities are not licensed for use
D. To load a large file into the database quickly1080
Chapter 18 Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
■
11. Choose the statement that is not true from the following about direct path load.
A. Direct path load cannot occur if active transactions against the table are
being loaded.
B. Triggers do not fire during direct path loads.
C. During direct path loads, foreign key constraints are disabled at the beginning of
the load and then re-enabled after the load.
D. Only primary key, unique, and NOT NULL constraints are enforced.
E. Direct path load allows other users to perform DML operations on the table while
the direct load operation is in progress.
12. Which two statements regarding the Grid Infrastructure are true?
A. It is mandatory to create a disk group during the GI install using the Install and
Configure Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server option.
B. You can only create one disk group during the GI install.
C. A disk group must have at least two disks.
D. After a GI install, ASMCA must be run to configure an ASM instance.
13. What is the smallest unit of storage in an ASM disk group?
A. Database block
B. OS block
C. Allocation unit
D. Smallest disk in the disk group
14. Which privilege is required to start and stop an ASM instance?
A. SYSDBA
B. SYSASM
C. SYSDBA or SYSASM
D. SYSDBA or ASMOPER
15. What Oracle Restart utility that is used to start and stop ASM instances also starts the
listener associated with the ASM?
A. crsca
B. asmca
C. asmcmd
D. srvctl
Review Questions
1081
16. How many fail groups are required to configure a disk group with NORMAL
redundancy?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Fail groups are not applicable for NORMAL redundancy.
17. Review the following statement, and choose the SQL statement that successfully drops
a disk from the disk group.
SQL> SELECT name, path
FROM
v$asm_disk
WHERE group_number = 1;
NAME
------------
FRADISK_000
FRADISK_001
PATH
------------------------
/dev/rd/sd10c1
/dev/rd/sd11c1
A. DROP DISK FRADISK_000
B. ALTER DISKGROUP DROP DISK FRADISK_000
C. ALTER DISKGROUP DROP DISK '/dev/rd/sd10c1'
D. ALTER DISKGROUP DROP DISK FRADISK_000, FRADISK_001
18. Which of the following statements can speed up the disk group rebalancing process?
(Choose two.)
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET ASM_POWER_LIMIT=0
B. ALTER SYSTEM SET ASM_POWER_LIMIT=100
C. ALTER DISKGROUP oradata REBALANCE POWER 100
D. ALTER DISKGROUP oradata ASM_POWER_LIMIT 100
19. Choose the option that can be used to start an ASM instance.
A. sqlplus
B. asmcmd
C. asmca
D. srvctl
E. All of the above1082
Chapter 18 Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
■
20. Which command registers an ASM instance in Oracle Restart?
A. srvctl add asm
B. srvctl config asm
C. srvctl register asm
D. srvctl start asm
------------------------------------------
Chapter 18: Using Grid Infrastructure
and Data Movement Tools
1. B, C. The DBMS_METADATA package provides the database object definitions to the export
worker processes in the order of their creation. The DBMS_DATAPUMP package has the API
for high-speed export and import for bulk data and metadata loading and unloading.
2. B, D. Oracle Data Pump is known to versions 10g and newer; Oracle9i does not sup-
port Data Pump. Although Data Pump can perform data access using the direct-path
Chapter 18: Using Grid Infrastructure and Data Movement Tools
1117
or external-table method, Data Pump makes the decision automatically; the DBA can-
not specify the data-access method. Data Pump also supports network mode to import
directly from the source database and can estimate the space requirements for the
dump file.
3. D. The master table is the heart of the Data Pump operation and is maintained in the
schema of the job creator. It bears the name of the job, contains one row for each object
and each operation, and keeps status. Using this information helps restart a failed job or
suspend and resume a job. The master table is written to the dump file as the last step of
the export and is loaded to the schema of the user as the first step of the import.
4. C. If a directory object is created with the name DATA_PUMP_DIR, the privileged users can
use this location as the default location for Data Pump files. Privileged users are users
with EXP_FULL_DATABASE or IMP_FULL_DATABASE roles. Using %U in the filename generates
multiple files for parallel unloads, with each parallel process writing to one file.
5. D. The ATTACH parameter lets you attach or connect to an existing Data Pump job and
places you in interactive mode. ATTACH without any parameters attaches to the currently
running job, if there is only one job from the user. Otherwise, you must specify the job
name when using the ATTACH parameter.
6. B. If the CONTENT parameter is not specified, both data and metadata will be unloaded.
The valid values for CONTENT are METADATA_ONLY, DATA_ONLY, and ALL. If SCOTT is per-
forming the export, SCHEMAS=SCOTT is optional.
7. A. REMAP_DATAFILE changes the name of the source data file to the target data filename
in all DDL statements where the source data file is referenced. REMAP_SCHEMA loads
all objects from the source schema into the destination schema. When using REMAP_
TABLESPACE, all objects selected for import with persistent data in the source tablespace
are remapped to be created in the destination tablespace. REMAP_TABLE changes the
name of the table. Because the dump file is in XML format, Data Pump can make these
transformations easily. REMAP_INDEX is an invalid parameter.
8. C. You can specify the FLASHBACK_TIME or FLASHBACK_SCN parameter only when per-
forming a network import where the source is a database.
9. B. The network_link parameter specifies a database link to the source database.
10. B. External tables can be used to read ASCII flat files without loading them into the
database. The external table must be created with the ORACLE_LOADER access driver.
11. E. While the direct path load is in progress, users cannot run any DML statements
against the table. Only queries are allowed.
12. A, B. If you do not want to create a disk group during the GI install, you must choose the
Software Only install option. Only one disk group can be created during the GI install.
Additional disk groups can be created after the installation using ASMCA or SQL*Plus.1118
Appendix A Answers to Review Questions
■
Although we recommend that you have more than one disk in each disk group, it is not
mandatory. GI install configures the ASM instance and uses the disk group created dur-
ing the install to save the parameter file and password file of ASM instance.
13. C. The smallest unit of storage in an ASM disk group is the allocation unit. Oracle
Database 12c permits sizes of 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, or 64MB. The allocation unit is
the size of the blocks allocated to a data file. The AU must be small enough to keep
hot spots from occurring and large enough for efficient sequential reads. 1MB is the
default, and 4MB AU is recommended for most databases.
14. B. You must be connected to the ASM instance with the SYSASM privilege to start and
stop the ASM instance.
15. D. Server control is used to start and stop all Oracle Restart components including
ASM, listener, and database.
16. C. A NORMAL redundancy disk group requires two fail groups, and a HIGH redun-
dancy disk group requires three fail groups.
17. B. Option A is an invalid statement. The disk path can be used only when adding a
disk; when dropping a disk the disk name must be provided. Option C is using a disk
path with the drop clause and is invalid. Option D is syntactically correct, but you can-
not drop all disks from a disk group. A disk group must have at least one disk.
18. B, C. The rebalance speed at an instance level is adjusted using the ASM_POWER_LIMIT
parameter. Rebalance power can be adjusted using the ALTER DISKGROUP statement as
well. The higher the power limit, the more quickly a rebalance operation can complete.
Higher power values consume more I/O resources, which could impact database per-
formance. Rebalancing takes longer with lower power values, but it consumes fewer
processing and I/O resources.
19. E. All of the tools listed in options A to D can be used to start an ASM instance. You have
to explicitly provide start commands in sqlplus, asmcmd, and srvctl, but if asmca finds
that the ASM instance is not started, it gets confirmation from you and starts the instance.
20. A. The Server Control utility (srvctl) is used to register a component during an Oracle
Restart. The add command is used to register a component. The config command
shows the configuration information. The start command starts the component after
it is registered. The register command is not valid.
Saturday, October 10, 2015
EXAM IZ0-060 22 Topics for your GAP analysis
Enterprise Manager and Other Tools
- Enterprise Manager (EM) Cloud Control home page
- Enterprise Manager Express home page versus Enterprise Manager Database Control
- SQL Developer with new functionalities
- OUI, DBCA
Basics of Multitenant Container Database (CDB)
- Benefits of the multitenant architecture
- Differences between the root container and pluggable database containers
- Structure of the root
- Structure of Pluggable Database (PDB)
- CDB_xxx and DBA_xxx views
- Impacts in Security, Data Guard, Oracle GoldenGate, Oracle Streams, XStream, and Scheduler
Configuring and Creating CDB and PDBs
- Tools: DBCA and SQL*Plus
- Configuration and creation of CDB
- Exploring the Structure (CDB_xxx views and EM)
- Tools used: SQL Developer, DBCA and SQL*Plus
- Create a new PDB from PDB$SEED
- Create a PDB from a non-CDB
- Clone a PDB into the same CDB or into another CDB using DB links
- Plug in an unplugged PDB
Managing CDB and PDBs
- Connect to CDB as administrator
- Connect to a PDB using a service name
- Start up a CDB
- Open / Close a PDB (SQL*Plus, srvctl, EM)
- Open / Close all PDBs
- Shut down a CDB
- Triggers ON PLUGGABLE DATABASE
- Change PDB state
Managing Tablespaces, Common and Local Users, Privileges and Roles
- Create permanent tablespaces in the root and PDBs
- Manage common and local schemas and users in the root and PDBs
- Manage system and object privileges to common and local grantees granted "commonly" or "locally"
- Manage common and local roles granted "commonly" or "locally"
Managing Backup / Recovery / Flashback and Migration
- Backup a whole CDB
- Backup a PDB
- Recover CDB from redo log files, control files, undo datafiles loss
- Recover PDB from PDB datafiles loss
- Flashback at CDB level
Online Datafile Move and Automatic Data Optimization
- Data classification in 12c : tablespace, group, object, row levels
- Configure heat map
- Automatic movement and compression
- Compression levels and types
- Policy declaration: simple declarative SQL extension
- Customized automated action execution with user-defined function
- Execution in scheduled maintenance windows and by MMON
- Customized schedule with DBMS_ILM package
In-Database Archiving
- Challenges of old data in tables and 11g solutions
- In-database archiving new solutions
- Use ROW ARCHIVAL clause to enable row lifecycle state for applications
- Set ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY for session level visibility control
- Use predicate on ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column
- Temporal Validity versus Temporal History (Transaction Time of FDA)
- New clause of CREATE / ALTER TABLE to set a Temporal Validity: PERIOD FOR
- New SQL temporal data type
Auditing Enhancements
- Review of 11g R2 audit trail implementation
- Overview of the Unified Audit Trail
- Enabling the Unified Audit Trail
- Creating a separate tablespace for the unified audit trail
- Granting the AUDIT_ADMIN role to a user for audit trail configuration and management
- Configuring the Unified Audit Trail to set a tolerance level for loss of audit records
- Creating audit policies
Privileges Enhancements
- Implementing Separation of Duty for Database Administration Tasks
- Using Database Privilege Analysis
- Overview of Database Privilege Analysis
- Granting the CAPTURE_ADMIN role to enable management of privilege captures
- Creating and starting/stopping privilege captures
- Viewing privilege profile data
- Querying DBA_PRIV_CAPTURES
- Using mandatory INHERIT PRIVILEGES privilege to execute invoker's rights procedure
Oracle Data Redaction
- Overview of Oracle Data Redaction
- Types of Masking Policies
- Administering the EXEMPT REDACTION POLICY system privilege to enable a user to view unmasked values
- Managing Masking Policies
- Best practices for defining policy expressions
- Understanding Masking of Statements Containing Subqueries
- Viewing Information About Masking Policies by Querying REDACTION_POLICIES and REDACTION_COLUMNS
General RMAN New Features and FDA Enhancements
- Making Database Connections With RMAN
- Using the SYSBACKUP Privilege
- Using SQL, DESCRIBE Command, Duplication Operation with the NOOPEN option
- Backing up and Restoring Very Large Files
- Creating Multisection Backups
- Transporting Data Across Platforms
- Prerequisites and Limitations
- Transporting Data: Processing steps
Monitoring DB Operations
- Overview
- Use cases
- Current Tools
- Define a DB operation
- Monitoring: Bracketing an Operation
- Monitoring the Progress of Operations
- DB Operation Tuning
- DB Operation Active Report
Schema and Data Changes
- Explain the Schema Change Plan flow
- Change requests
- Schema synchronization
- Explain the Data Comparison flow
- DBMS_COMPARISON package
- Guidelines and steps
- Comparison job and results
SQL Tuning
- Adaptive Execution Plans
- SQL Plan Directives
- Statistics Gathering Performance Improvements
- Histogram Enhancements
- Enhancements to Extended Statistics
- Adaptive SQL Plan Management
Real-Time ADDM and Compare Period Advisor
- Emergency Monitoring
- Real time ADDM
- Use cases
- Goals
- Define Workload dimensions
- Reported items
- Root Causes
- Requirements for a report
Resource Manager and Other Performance Enhancements
- Manage resources between PDBs
- Manage resources within a PDB
- Manage resources with CDB and PDBs plans
- Manage runaway queries
- Automated maintenance tasks
- Describe the Multi-process Multi-threaded Oracle architecture
- Learn how to use this architecture in Oracle 12c Database
- Demonstrate the changes to shutdown procedures
Index and Table Enhancements
- Multiple indexes on the same set of columns as long as some characteristic is different
- Create table with INVISIBLE columns
- Support for invisible columns
- Advanced Row Compression
- Describe online redefinition supports
- Explain LOCK timeout during FINISH_REDEF_TABLE
- Using DDL statements in an online manner
ADR and Network Enhancements
- ADR file types
- New File types
- New File locations
- New commands for ADRCI
- Improve performance by Compression
- Setup Compression
Oracle Data Pump, SQL*Loader, External Tables and Online Operations Enhancements
- Use FULL Transportable export and import
- Oracle Data Pump enhancements
- SQL*Loader enhancements
- SQL*Loader and External table common enhancements
- SQL*Loader Express Mode usage
Partitioning Enhancements
- Move a partition online
- ALTER TABLE ... SPLIT PARTITION, ALTER TABLE ... MERGE PARTITION , ALTER TABLE...ADD PARTITION Clauses: Overview
- Split Partition Operation Enhancement
- ALTER TABLE SPLIT SUBPARTITION
- Merge Partition Operation
- Add Partition Operation
- Drop Partition Operation
- ALTER TABLE DROP SUBPARTITION
SQL Enhancements
- Enumerate Increase in the length limits for VARCHAR2, NVARCHAR2, and RAW data types in Oracle SQL to 32767 (32k) byte
- Enumerate miscellaneous enhancements
- Using SQL Row limiting clause in a query
Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c Administrator (1Z0-060)-Beta
Beta Opportunity Continues: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c Administrator (1Z0-060)
By Brandye Barrington-Oracle on Sep 04, 2013
Beta testing continues for the Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c Administrator Exam (1Z0-060).
This exam allows Oracle Certified Professionals to upgrade from Oracle7 Database, Oracle8 Database, Oracle8i Database, Oracle9i Database, Oracle Database 10g or Oracle Database 11g Database Administrator Certified Professional, to Oracle Database 12c Administrator Certified Professional. The upgrade exam focuses on designing consolidation strategies to exploit Container and Pluggable databases, implementing Oracle 12c feature-rich ILM support, optimizing SQL execution using dynamic swapping of sub plans, implementing real-time data redaction within databases, as well as exploiting the many additional performance, backup and recovery, security and partitioning enhancements. The exam also includes a thorough review of core DBA skills.
With Oracle Database 12c, you will experience the benefits of an Oracle Database that is re-engineered for Cloud computing. Multitenant architecture brings enterprises unprecedented hardware and software efficiencies, performance and manageability benefits, and fast and efficient Cloud provisioning. Oracle Database 12c certifications emphasize the full set of skills that DBAs need in today's competitive marketplace.
While in beta, the certification exam is currently available at the greatly discounted rate of $50 USD. Visitpearsonvue.com/oracle and register for exam 1Z1-060.
The Oracle Database 12c: New Features for Administrators training course is recommended, as it highlights an array of advanced subjects and technologies, such as the new concept of multitenant architecture, and its benefits and usage. You can get all preparation details, including exam objectives, number of questions, time allotments, and pricing on the Oracle Certification website.
QUICK LINKS:
- Certification Track: Oracle Database 12c Administrator Certified Professional
- Certification Exam: "Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c Administrator" (1Z0-060)
- Recommended Training: "Oracle Database 12c: New Features for Administrators"
- Certification Website: About Beta Exams
- Register Now: Pearson VUE
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